Titus 2:13-14 says, "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus, who gave Himself for us to redeem us from every lawless deed, and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds." In this passage, Paul gives 3 aorist verbs that describe the work of Jesus....
I. JESUS GAVE
A. He gave "HIMSELF"
1. Means "to dedicate oneself for some purpose or cause, give up, sacrifice." (BDAG)
2. Used also in I Tim. 2:6 ("gave") and II Tim. 4:8 ("reward")
B. He did so "FOR US"
II. JESUS REDEEMED
A. He redeemed "US"
1. Means "to liberate from an oppressive situation, set free, rescue, redeem." (BDAG)
2. Used also in I Pet. 1:18 ("redeemed")
B. He did so "FROM EVERY LAWLESS DEED"
III. JESUS PURIFIED
A. He purified "US"
1. Means "to purify through ritual cleansing, make clean, declare clean."
2. Specifically, "of moral and cultic cleansing." (BDAG)
3. Used also in II Cor. 7:1 and Eph. 5:26 as "cleanse."
B. He did so that we could be:
1. A "PEOPLE" to be "HIS"
2. A "PEOPLE" to be "ZEALOUS FOR GOOD DEEDS"
Jesus did all of this on the cross for you and I because we needed that perfect sacrifice for our sins. After all he has done for us, is it not reasonable for Him to expect us to live according to this "sound doctrine" (Titus. 2:1; Rom. 12:1)?